VFA-122 Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) Closed Book Practice Test

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• In NATOPS, which statement best describes operational risk management (ORM) in flight planning?
• During engine start, which switch should be ON as it provides primary overspeed cutout protection for the ATS?
• Which pair correctly matches the MIL/MAX maximum steady-state EGT values?
• What minimum interval must elapse between APU shutdown and the next start to prevent APU running engagement?
• What is the Field Landing/FCLP/T&G Weight Limitations?
• Fuel cannot be dumped with either a BINGO or FUEL LO caution displayed.
• What is the approximate fuel dump rate under certain attitude and power settings?
• Light bulb integrity testing during LT TEST with AC power applied makes it unnecessary to detect unlit FIRE lights during the fire detection loop test.
• Which data point lists Main Gear as 210 KGS?
• Which data point also carries a 66,000 LBS limit but is not the Field Takeoff?
• How is the HUD control panel involved in displaying the HUD information?
• True/False: NWS HI is displayed in the HUD when high mode is selected.
• Which statement about the battery charging circuit is correct?
• The fuel low level indicating system is completely independent of the fuel quantity indicating system.
• If the launch bar does not return to the up and locked position after catapult launch, or the nose gear indicates WonW, the nose landing gear cannot be retracted. Placing the LDG GEAR handle UP will:
• How is a typical NATOPS checklist item structured?
• The APU switch automatically returns to the OFF position 1 minute after the second generator comes online.
• Which condition prevents retraction of the emergency air refueling probe after emergency extension?
• How should radio call signs and frequency usage be handled per NATOPS?
• Which set of components is driven by an AMAD?
• How does NATOPS guide determining the correct approach speed and configuration for landing?
• Which statement best defines 'Land as Soon as Possible' in flight operations?
• Which data point features a Canopy weight of 60 KGS?
• What does CRM stand for in NATOPS and why is it essential?
• The gyro should not be locked in the caged position if the gyro is spinning.
• What two actions stop a BIT test in progress and return the equipment to normal operation?
• The hook light remains on except when the hook is up and latched.
• Extended operation of windshield anti-ice/rain removal system on a dry windshield may result in heat damage to the windshield.
• Which section defines safe operating envelopes such as speed, altitude, weight, and configuration?
• What is the Main Gear weight in KGS?
• The DEGD indication after landing is triggered when airspeed drops to or below which KCAS?
• How does NATOPS address flight deck hazard awareness and handling?
• True / False: A blown nose tire can not FOD an engine.
• The __________ switch must be in the _____ position to use the selective jettison system.
• What is the Catapult (Not 5 Wet Configured) Weight Limitations?
• The HUD landing display includes which elements?
• If the external tank control switch is in STOP TRANSFER and the hook handle is down, fuel will transfer when which indication occurs?
• An HUD display indication shows which label when nose wheel steering high mode is active?
• A single-engine landing is performed with HALF flaps.
• What is the maximum oil pressure at 2.5 minutes after start?
• If the landing gear fails to retract you should perform the following:
• Anti-skid is effective down to approximately ____ KGS.
• Pulling the manual override handle automatically rotates the ejection seat safe/armed handle to the ______ position, releases the survival kit attachment lugs and leg restraint lines, and unlocks the inertia reel. If this is done inflight, the aircrew will be ______.
• What is NATOPS guidance on fuel balance between tanks?
• Is the following statement true: High gain nosewheel steering should be used on takeoff roll up to 50 KIAS?
• What type of information is contained in the abnormal procedures section?
• With an air-to-ground store or tank on a wing station, maximum roll rate is automatically reduced to 150 deg/second to avoid exceeding pylon structural load limits.
• At approximately 30% reservoir fluid level, what does the Reservoir Level Switch (RLS) do?
• Ground idle steady-state oil pressure limits are within which range?
• Aerobraking requires greater than which KCAS?
• What occurs with gear handle UP, airspeed below 175 KCAS, altitude less than 7,500 feet, and rate of descent greater than 250 fpm?
• The APU switch automatically returns to OFF position after which event?
• NATOPS guidance on thermal anti-ice usage states that you should?
• After emergency extension of the air refueling probe, how is the probe retracted? (With loss of HYD 2A)
• In an unlikely event of a total AC/DC failure inflight, the battery provides approximately 5-10 minutes of power to the FCCs.
• Why is fuel management emphasized in NATOPS?
• After landing, if the aircraft slows below 80 KCAS and ENG STATUS remains unchanged, the transition from OP GO to DEGD is:
• It is not important to detect individual unlit FIRE lights during the fire detection loop test when performing LT TEST with AC power applied.
• Stalls occur at lower AOA with GAIN ORIDE selected.
• If the manual override handle is pulled inflight, what is the effect on eject capability?
• Which data point lists Nose Gear as 195 KGS?
• Placing the wing fold switch to FOLD in flight will cause the wings to fold during landing rollout.
• What is NATOPS guidance on weapons safety during engine start and taxi?
• True/False: Once EMERG has been selected on FCS COOL, selection of NORM will switch FCC A and right TR cooling back to avionics air.
• What is the maximum transient EGT during engine start?
• During aerobics or high-energy maneuvers, what should you do regarding envelope limits?
• Who has the discretion to select the landing site and duration of flight for a 'Land as Soon as Practicable' operation?
• Each AMAD mechanically drives which set of components?
• What is the Field Takeoff Weight Limitations?
• Which NATOPS topic addresses ejection readiness, proper egress procedures, and survival equipment?
• How should anti-skid braking be used on wet runways according to NATOPS?
• In NATOPS formation flight operations, which elements are prescribed to ensure safe operation?
• Extended crossbleeding of a failed engine traps feed tank fuel on that side if the ______ light has not been pushed, and may result in a _______.
• Emergency jettison is performed by pressing the EMERG JETT button with either the _______________ or with _________.
• Which set of elements constitutes the HUD landing display?
• The oil pressure indication on the EFD and the L/R OIL PR Caution:
• What is the recommended approach to anti-ice usage and weather avoidance?
• All flight control surface actuators are powered by one _______ circuit and one _______ circuit, either simultaneously or through hydraulic _________.
• What is a common NATOPS consideration when operating at high altitude or high Mach?
• When pressed, the FIRE EXTGH READY/DISCH light latches into a depressed position similar to the FIRE lights.
• Which statement best describes the hydraulic powering of the flight control surface actuators?
• Removing the mask without placing the OXY flow knob to OFF can overwhelm the system capacity and may result in an OBOGS DEG D caution.
• What is the Canopy weight in KGS?
• How should crews respond to radio frequency interference or failure events?
• A single-engine landing is made at HALF flaps.
• How should flight crews handle miscommunication or misidentification with ATC?
• N2 RPM Max Transient is specified as what percentage?
• With one engine operating and the APU shutdown, the minimum percent rpm required to initiate crossbleed airstart is?
• In-flight steady-state oil pressure limits are within which range?
• HYD system 2 provides power to flight controls and arresting hook.
• Failure to route the restraint lines properly through the garters could cause serious injury during ejection/emergency egress.
• Which system provides the fuel low level indication independent of the fuel quantity indicating system?
• Refuel Probe Extend/Retract is allowed at which KCAS?
• Which of the following are the approximate percent levels used by the Reservoir Level Switch (RLS) for its actions?
• On takeoff, accelerating with the flaps in half, at what speed will the flaps auto begin AUTO scheduling?
• How are normal procedures different from emergency procedures in NATOPS?
• What is the purpose of the post-flight shutdown checklist?
• What airspeed may be required to maintain 12% windmilling rpm?
• IFR operations with degraded avionics, what should be prioritized to maintain control?
• What is the maximum rudder toe-in angle?
• What is the maximum transient EGT for MIL/MAX operations?
• True / False: If you must land with the launch bar extended, you should request that the field arresting gear cables be removed.
• If the PARK BRAKE handle is not set during right engine start, a GEN TIE caution light comes on when the right generator comes online.
• What is the maximum KCAS for extending or retracting the Landing Gear?
• Hydraulic cautions HYD 1A, HYD 1B, HYD 2A, HYD 2B are set when hydraulic pressure falls below which value?
• Which combination describes a stabilized approach?
• Which elements are required in flight planning documentation?
• Which statement best describes a key objective of the NATOPS landing/approach guidance?
• Which statement about FADEC redundancy and engine performance is correct?
• What is the NATOPS procedure for an in-flight fire?
• What does 'stabilized approach' mean in NATOPS terms?
• If wings are commanded to unlock or fold during a catapult shot, bolter, or touch-and-go, which sequence occurs?
• The primary overspeed cutout source for an ATS is the corresponding ______, and the backup source is the frequency sensing relay (FSR). The FSR monitors ATS speed and provides the signal which electrically holds the ______ switch.
• On a section takeoff, turns into wingman will not be made at altitudes less than ______.
• What is the minimum N2 RPM for ground idle?
• If the anti-skid system is failed and the ANTISKID caution is present but clears when you cycle the ANTISKID switch, it may reappear airborne after about 13.5 seconds.
• Normal brake system pressure is provided by which HYD system?
• During a hydraulic fault, what action should be prioritized?
• What is the NATOPS expectation for crew communications during critical flight phases?
• What is the weight value for the Nose Gear in KGS?
• Emergency jettison is initiated by pressing the EMERG JETT button with input options?
• Which caution/advisory display will not trigger the engine left/right voice alert?
• When navigation capability is degraded or lost, what does NATOPS require?
• What is NATOPS guidance regarding cabin pressurization and altitude safety checks?
• What is an acceptable use of crossfeed within NATOPS?
• True or False: If the BLEED AIR KNOB is not placed to OFF before shutdown, the corresponding primary bleed air shutoff valve may not fully close, resulting in residual engine fumes in the cabin.
• For instrument indications conflict with aircraft behavior during critical phases, NATOPS guidance is to:
• Pitch attitude for aerobraking?
• When making an arrested abort, allow time for the arresting hook to extend; as a guide, lower the hook _________ before the cable.
• If instrument indications conflict with actual aircraft behavior, what is the recommended action?
• The Frequency Sensing Relay (FSR) serves as which function in the overspeed protection system?
• What is the second step in the NATOPS procedure for an in-flight fire?
• What is the maximum KCAS for TEF Half/Full?
• Failure of both AOA probe heaters in icing conditions may cause which attitude?
• What is the purpose of the before-start and before-taxi checklists?
• What is the barricade weight limitation for carrier landings?
• What is the maximum crosswind for aerobraking?
• Which data point lists a weight limit of 50,600 LBS?
• On the ground, the APU fire extinguishing system operates automatically whenever an APU fire is detected.
• Which statement best describes the effect of FADEC redundancy on minor control faults?
• During an in-flight fire, which action follows shutting off affected systems?
• With HYD 2A failure, anti-skid is available.
• How does NATOPS address workload when operating single-ship versus formation?
• How is operational risk management (ORM) integrated into flight planning in NATOPS?
• With both generators inoperative and a good battery your hydraulic pressure indicator will be inoperative.
• Nosewheel steering low mode may be engaged; the launch bar is down. True or False?
• What is the primary purpose of NATOPS in VFA-122?
• What is the primary role of the flight control system?
• When navigation capability is degraded or lost, what should you do?
• Turns into wingman during a section takeoff are not made below what altitude?
• How does NATOPS instruct pilots to use checklists during flight?
• The APU restart envelope is below which altitude and below which KCAS?
• Aerobraking is authorized under the following conditions:
• Operation of APU is totally automatic after the APU switch is placed ON.
• Windshield preheat as a fog remedy: which option correctly pairs DEFOG and WINDSHIELD settings?
• A blown nose tire can FOD an engine.
• Which statement best describes the cockpit warning for a single TR failure?
• What is the maximum KCAS for Emergency Extend of Landing Gear?
• Visual inspection of the landing gear can confirm locked gear, obvious damage, and general position of the gear.
• Rudder toe-in maximum angle is 40 degrees.
• What is the maximum airspeed allowed when the Refuel Probe is Extended?
• What is a direct result of standardizing flight operations and procedures under NATOPS?
• What is the purpose of the limitations section in NATOPS?
• During a compound emergency, which procedure should be completed prior to any other procedures?
• What fuel state illuminates the FUEL LO light, MASTER CAUTION light, and activates the fuel low voice alert?
• Which statement best describes the NATOPS approach to hazard awareness?
• The windshield may fog rapidly under conditions of very high aircraft descent rates and high humidity. To preheat the windshield, set the DEFOG handle to _______ and the WINDSHIELD switch to either ______ or ______.
• In an unlikely event of a total ac/dc failure inflight, the battery provides approximately 5-10 minutes of power for the FCCs, after which aircraft control is lost.
• Selecting manual spin recovery mode (SPIN switch in RCVY) has what effect on controllability?
• Minimum minutes between APU shutdown and the next APU start?
• What is NATOPS guidance on weapons safety and arming procedures?
• Which oil pressure value is the minimum required within 30 seconds after start?
• If the Bleed Air Knob is not placed to OFF before shutdown, what may occur?
• In IFR operations with degraded avionics, what is the recommended action?
• Under what condition will the HUD landing display be presented?
• If a stalled engine will not clear, you should shut down and attempt a restart.
• What is the maximum steady-state EGT for MIL operation?
• What practice should be used to maintain safety-critical actions during high workload?
• What kind of weather information does NATOPS require a pilot to review for flight planning?
• The canopy can be jettisoned in the closed position only.
• In a no-power situation, a FIRE light with a yellow and black border around it indicates that the FIRE light has been pressed.
• During right engine start, if the PARK BRAKE is not set, which caution light comes on when the right generator comes online?
• How does NATOPS address ejection safety and survivability?
• Which of the following is NOT typically listed as a main NATOPS section?
• Nosewheel steering low mode may be momentarily engaged while the launch bar is down.
• Which statement best represents NATOPS guidance for post-flight debriefing and maintenance reporting?
• Canopy or ejection-seat egress procedures require you to?
• The exterior lights master switch must be on for operation of the position and formation lights, but not for the strobe lights.
• What is the NATOPS guidance regarding weather briefing for flight planning?
• Which statement best describes the function of the flight control system?
• If a stalled engine will not clear, you may shut down the engine and attempt a restart.
• During flight brief consideration of takeoff abort possibilities, the following items should be considered: a. Weight. b. Speed. c. Runway length remaining. d. All of the above.
• NATOPS guidance for post-flight debriefing and maintenance reporting?
• Read-backs during NATOPS should include what?
• The hook light is not illuminated when the hook is up and latched.
• HYD system 2 provides power to which components, and pressurizes which elements?
• The FCS RESET button fixes a detected failure.
• With wings spread and locked, pressing and holding the nose wheel steering button a second time will select the high mode (+/-75 deg) and NWS HI is displayed in the HUD.
• What is the maximum steady-state EGT for MAX operation?
• If the cockpit oxygen system indication shows low pressure, what is the immediate NATOPS action?
• Which action can trigger an OBOGS DEG D caution?
• How are stalls different from unusual attitude procedures in NATOPS?
• What is the purpose of the landing/approach portion in NATOPS?
• The statement 'There is no voice alert associated with BINGO fuel' is:
• An APU restart should be one of the first procedures you utilize after an engine failure.
• In stall awareness, what best ensures a safe recovery?
• The statement 'The battery charger supplies charging power to the battery anytime the right 115 VAC bus is energized, regardless of BATT switch position' is:
• Rudder toe-in is a function of flap switch position and ___, with maximum toe-in being ___.
• How should a pilot respond to cockpit smoke per NATOPS?
• Which of the following statements best describes NATOPS guidance on risk management and hazard handling?
• Reduced Authority Thrust System (RATS) can be overridden by advancing the throttles to:
• What guidance does NATOPS provide regarding altitude and airspeed limits during aerobatics or high-energy maneuvers?
• What does NATOPS specify regarding cockpit doors and egress readiness during flight?
• If ATS caution is on when a DDI comes on, shut down the affected engine to avoid starter damage.
• To prevent an APU running engagement and to prevent APU exhaust torching, a minimum of ______ minutes must elapse between APU shutdown and another APU start.
• With no electrical power applied, a 1/8 inch border of yellow and black stripes around a FIRE light indicates that the FIRE light has been pressed.
• Activation of GAIN ORIDE during flight causes stalls to occur at lower angle of attack.
• When workload is high, what NATOPS principle should guide crew actions?
• What provides electrical power for APU ignition and start control circuits?
• Which statement represents something NOT typically included in a NATOPS checklist item?
• What does NATOPS require for flight planning documentation?
• During extended crossbleed from a failed engine, fuel trapped in the feed tank on that side can be released by pressing which light?
• During preflight, what is the main objective of the external inspection?
• What is NATOPS guidance regarding anti-ice usage and weather avoidance?
• Extended operation of windshield anti-ice/rain removal system on a dry windshield may result in heat damage to the windshield.
• Which condition satisfies crossbleed airstart capability?
• N2 RPM Max Steady State refers to which percentage?
• When a hydraulic system failure occurs, what is the recommended management approach?
• One generator is insufficient to carry the total aircraft electrical load.
• If the trailing edge flaps are failed in the 0 deg position, final approach airspeed is not significantly affected.
• What is the maximum transient EGT for MIL & MAX operations?
• At what altitude will cockpit pressurization begin?
• During takeoff checks, the WINGFOLD switch must be lever-locked in which position?
• How should a pilot handle a radio communications failure while IFR, according to NATOPS?
• HYD system 2 pressurizes which components?
• If the launch bar does not return to the up and locked position after catapult launch, the nose landing gear cannot be retracted.
• What is emphasized in stall awareness and recovery?
• What is the maximum transient EGT during Start?